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Why America outpaces Europe?

06.08.03 | 2 Comments

Some questions for Niall Ferguson, following his article in the NYT. When did correlation start implying cause? You admit that Europe has been catching up with US productivity for fifty years, yet discount this fact because Europeans are working less? How does that work? What if your average overworked American is worse off for it than his average “idle” European counterpart? Why doesn’t Japan count? Or perhaps there is some “Shinto work ethic” you intend to propose?

You note, “Many scholars have built careers out of criticizing Weber’s thesis. Yet the experience of Western Europe in the past quarter-century offers an unexpected confirmation of it.” Please explain how this sweeping generalization neatly disposes of a century of Weber studies. There is a general trend of rising socioeconomic status among new Pietist sects over several generations, a trend that is followed by socioeconomic stability, demographic decline and increased leisure. Isn’t that all you said? And, if that’s the case, wouldn’t that put Europe ahead of the US, since it had Pietism first?

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